Consider a single point charge at the origin. It will have ONLY a monopole contribution to the potential at a location r=x,y,z.

As we have seen, if we move the charge to another location (e.g., r=0,0,d), the distribution now has a dipole contribution to the potential at r!

What the hell is going on here?

  1. It's just how the math works out. Nothing has changed physically at r.
  2. There is something different about the field at r and the potential is showing us that.
  3. I'm not sure how to resolve this problem.
Consider a single point charge at the origin. It will have ONLY a monopole contribution to the potential at a location r=x,y,z. As we have seen, if we move the charge to another location (e.g., r=0,0,d), the distribution now has a dipole contribution to the potential at r! What the hell is going on here? It's just how the math works out. Nothing has changed physically at r. There is something different about the field at r and the potential is showing us that. I'm not sure how to resolve this problem.